Principles of Justice

To contribute, somewhat to the previous post, Rawls also states that within this original position there are two principles of justice. (part II sec.13). He says that in order to apply the second principle the first principle must be present as well as satisfied. Part two of the second principle says that the social and economic inequalities within a society must be "to the greatest benefit of the least advantaged members" (43) Do you think it is possible for the inequalities to be to their "greatest benefit"? Doesn't the term inequality imply that it cannot really benefit anyone and if so then does it mean that if we apply the original position to the U.S government that it could potentially account for corruption and/or imbalances? (as mentioned in the previous post).